
Categories
- Art (356)
- Other (3,632)
- Philosophy (2,814)
- Psychology (4,018)
- Society (1,009)
Recent Questions
- What needs to be corrected in the management of Russia first?
- Why did Blaise Pascal become a religious man at the end of his life?
- How do I know if a guy likes you?
- When they say "one generation", how many do they mean?
- Do people with Down syndrome understand that they have abnormalities? How do they see the world? Are they self-conscious about their illness?
Strong enough. Although we can only assume, and very conditionally. After all, thinking is influenced by culture as a whole, by history. Just as the culture of Ancient Greece and Ancient India is different, so the thinking of a Greek and a Hindu will be different. In everyday matters, in fact, everyone is the same, but in the spheres of philosophy-completely different. Different mythology, different attitudes to the body, beauty ideals, etc., which are inseparable from the way of thinking. They are different, just as people of different nationalities are different. It is not possible to go into details, to describe each difference concretely, since this is a whole large scientific work. The most important difference is probably that the Greeks had slaves and free people and this was the legal status of a person, and a free person actively participated in the life of the city according to their capabilities, in India the caste system left an imprint on everything, on the way of life, clothing, classes, opportunities. �In general, hints like this.