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Aristotle's logic revealed its non-exclusivity. Over the past two millennia, many other logics have been built that, importantly, have their uses, and are not just a useless mind game.
The question indicates the unwillingness of the philistine consciousness to perceive what is true, which was isolated by the mind of Aristotle from what is visible, audible, and otherwise perceived by its host organism…
correct wording:
did people manage to master the logic of Aristotle – or did they, as usual, not bother to discern the truth in his considerations?