- Why did everyone start to hate the Russians if the U.S. did the same thing in Afghanistan, Iraq?
- What needs to be corrected in the management of Russia first?
- Why did Blaise Pascal become a religious man at the end of his life?
- How do I know if a guy likes you?
- When they say "one generation", how many do they mean?
It was logical and speculative. The onslaught of scientific ideas and new ideas about the world forced us to abandon scholasticism with its speculative schemes for a complete description of reality.
In the sixteenth century, the dominance of deductive logic, Freud's logic, was replaced by the dominance of inductive logic, the logic of generalization based on experience. The first was dominant in scholasticism, although it has not lost its significance today
Perhaps because it was speculative in nature. The problem is that the emphasis shifted from nature to God, and this was not very good, because apart from the stagnation of knowledge, we did not get anything. However, it is still alive today, because we still have theology and theology, and there are such twists in logic that it can make your head spin. By the way, part of philosophy is still speculative, so I don't see the problem in scholasticism, I see the problem only in the fact that we sometimes seriously look at very mediocre things.