- Why did everyone start to hate the Russians if the U.S. did the same thing in Afghanistan, Iraq?
- What needs to be corrected in the management of Russia first?
- Why did Blaise Pascal become a religious man at the end of his life?
- How do I know if a guy likes you?
- When they say "one generation", how many do they mean?
Almost all women get orgasms from clitoral stimulation during masturbation, stimulation in sex with their own hand or a partner's hand, and cunnilingus. With vaginal sex, according to various sources, only 30 to 60% of women get an orgasm. Many women need to be aroused in various ways, including stimulation of erogenous zones and other caresses. Regardless of the biological or social reasons that most women have a harder time getting an orgasm during vaginal sex than men, these characteristics of women should be respected. Women should have the same right to regular sexual gratification and fulfillment of sexual desires as men.
If a man treats a variety of sex only as foreplay, which can leave a woman excited and unsatisfied, then with a high probability he shows selfishness in sex, and if he does not want to caress a woman, including her erogenous zones, and before vaginal sex, then even more so. Manual and oral stimulation can be practiced both during and after vaginal sex, culminating in a woman's orgasm. And even without vaginal sex. A man can also get an orgasm in a variety of ways, including those where his erection is optional.
There are also individual features. Some women can easily get orgasms during vaginal sex, prefer to be stimulated by their own hand, and so on. But even if a woman regularly gets an orgasm from vaginal sex, she may not get it if the man has an orgasm earlier. In this case, manual and oral stimulation is also recommended, including after a man's orgasm, so that the chances of a woman having an orgasm are not less than those of a man.
With mutual consent, one partner can satisfy the other without their sexual desire and satisfaction at this time. This can also be done by a man without his own erections and orgasms, if the woman wants. The reasons that women are more likely to have sex without desire and orgasm than men are not biological, but purely social and are related to the fact that women's interests in sex are given less attention compared to men.
If your partners like what you do and accept it, you are a good lover and partner for them. If you don't like it or don't accept it, you are a bad lover and partner.
I don't see any connection with chauvinism at all. Or are you referring to orthodox feminists ' attempts to regulate sexual behavior? Don't give a damn about them)
What is the essence of the question?
Whether you are a chauvinist or not, you are the one who is easiest to understand. If you treat your partner in this way for reasons of neglect and oppression, then yes. The very fact of having such a question indicates awareness of the problem…
Imagine what it's like for your partner to go through such an experience.
There is an opinion, and I share it, that pleasure in sex comes through love. I'm not talking about having sex with someone you love, but about tenderness, care and other vanilla feelings.
And the desire to finish quickly is more like perverted masturbation. Oh, I'm sorry.
P.S. naturally, everyone has their own head on their shoulders – if one likes to dominate, and the other likes to experience humiliation, then this is normal, but it requires clarification.